Dear all,
there was another mistake, sor for that ("Ifip regular" was meant to be ""standard LNCS").
Otto --------------------------------------
Proceedings publication example:
Assumptions: 250 pages; 151 copies taken by the organisor; estimated 400 copies produced in total (out of which are 50 complimentary copies if IFIP LNCS is used).
A1. Total cost for the organisor with "IFIP LNCS":
Organisor pays 101 copies, gets 50 for free.
Total price: 101 x 58 = 5,858 EURO
A2: Royalties to IFIP with "IFIP LNCS":
10 percent of estimated 350 books: 0.10 x 350 x 58 = 2,030.20 EURO 10 percent of estimated 249 books: 0.10 x 249 x 58 = 1,444.20 EURO
The second line would be valid if no royalties would be paid for the bulk copies; which line is the correct one?
B1. Total cost for the organisor with "Standard LNCS":
Organisor pays 101 copies, gets 50 for free.
Total price: 101 x 42 = 4,242.00 EURO
B2: Royalties to IFIP with "Standard LNCS":
None at all.
C1. Total cost for the organisor with "Regular IFIP series":
Total price: 151 x 31.52 = 4,759.52 EURO
C2: Royalties to IFIP with "Regular IFIP series":
12 percent of 400 books (list price!): 0.12 x 400 x 100 EURO = 4,800.00 EURO 12 percent of 400 books (bulk price!): 0.12 x 400 x 31.52 EURO = 1,512.96 EURO
Is has been assumed here that all of the 400 produced copies would be sold. I assume that royalty paid would be a mixture of price for bulk sales and for books sold on the free market (whose number could be very near to zero since the normal list price is 125 USD, i.e. approx. 100 EURO, which is outrageously high) and that no rroyalties will be paid for books which have been produced but can nver be sold due to high prices. This needs explanation.